Data Communications and Networking 2

---

IT6223 - Data Communications and Networking 2
(Cisco 2) is all about network routing and switching essentials. In this course you will have a clear understanding in what are routers, and switches are all about and its purpose. Also in this course we’ve prepared for you well suited laboratory exercises for you to gain knowledge and skills in configuring these devices in different scenarios and in different networking environments. In between you will have some tips or pointers for you to make things easier. This course will not just help you to understand topics easier but prepare you in the real life networking environment and help you in passing some Cisco certification exams. For this course, it is essential at least you have a basic background in networking and you need to download Cisco Packet Tracer Student software as your simulation tool for the labs.

---

NAT Overload	PAT Address Translation is also termed what?
4 & 5	"Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? 1. The metric varies depending which Layer 3 protocol is being routed, such as IP. 2. A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances. 3. The value of the administrative distance can not be altered by the network administrator. 4. Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path. 5. Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route. 6. The metric is always determined based on hop count."
1 and 3	What are the two main types of access control lists (ACLs)?
Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length of the agreement.	How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP address to host?
To be used as a backup route	Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is highierthan the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router?
None of the choices	Which of the following is NOT a feature of a Switched Network
ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length eui-64	Which command is used to configure an IPv6 address on a router interface so that the router will combine a manually specified network prefix with an automatically generated interface identifier?
Access, distribution and Core layer	What are the 3 layers of the distribution access?
2, 3, 2005	"OSPF routing uses the concept of areas. What are the characteristics of OSPF areas? 1. Each OSPF area requires a loopback interface to be configured. 2. Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535. 3. Area 0 is called the backbone area. 4. Hierarchical OSPF networks do not require multiple areas. 5. Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0. 6. Single area OSPF networks must be configured in area 1."
2, 4	Which two statements describe a routed switch port on a multilayer switch?
Collision domain	The network segments that share the same bandwidth between devices.
2 & 3	Refer to the graphic. It has been decided that PC1 should be denied access to Server. Which 2 of the following commands are required to prevent only PC1 from accessing Server1 while allowing all other traffic to flow normally?
1 & 3	The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following tasks?
Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.	Which task does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform?
Relays a DHCP request across networks	The ip helper-address command does what?
A measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source.	What does administrative distance refer to?
Store-and-forward switching	A switch forwarding method that makes a forwarding decision on a frame after it has received the entire frame and then checked the frame for errors.
All of the choices	Which of the following is NOT a characteristics of a network?
Ip domain-name mycompany.com	Which of the following is the command to configure the IP domain name of the network (mycompany.com)
1, 3, 2005	Which three statements describe the routing protocol OSPF?
802.1q	Which protocolis used to configure trunking on a switch?
switchport access vlanvlan-id	What is the command to assign the port to a particular VLAN when the interface is in access mode?
Show ip interface	Which command is used to determine if an IP access list is enabled on a particular interface?
None of the choices	Which of the following is NOT an element of converged network?
debug ip nat	Which command will allow you to see real-time translations on your router?
ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.0.0	What is the command to set the IP address (192.168.10.2) and subnet mask (255.255.0.0) for specific Fast Ethernet interface?
1 & 4	"There are two advantages of static routing over dynamic routing among these choices. What are these? 1. Static routing is more secure because it does not advertise over the network. 2. Static routing scales well with expanding networks. 3. Static routing requires very little knowledge of the network for correct implementation. 4. Static routing uses fewer router resources than dynamic routing 5. Static routing is relatively easy to configure for large networks."
2 & 5	Refer to the exhibit. A junior network engineer in one of the biggest telecom company in the Philippines has prepared the exhibited configuration file. What two statements are true of the planned configuration for interface fa0/1?
Configure a static default route from R1 to Edge, a default route from Edge to the Internet, and a static route from Edge to R1.	In reference with the network diagram of RMS Defence Industries. What routing solution will allow both PC A and PC B to access the Internet with the minimum amount of router CPU and network bandwidth utilization?
show interfaces trunk	To troubleshoot issues when a trunk is not forming or when VLAN leaking is occurring, what command to be used to check whether the local and peer native VLANs match?
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0 ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10	A network engineer for a semiconductor company wants to use the primary ISP connection for all external connectivity. Refer at the diagram below. The backup ISP connection is used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish this goal?
no shutdown	Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown. When the administrator checks the status of the serial interface, the interface is shown as being administratively down. What additional command must be entered on the serial interface of R1 to bring the interface up?
Static route	If your routing table has a static, a RIP, and an IGRP route to the same network, which route will be used to route packets by default?
1 & 4	Which two commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0?
The gateway for Server A is not on the same subnet.	Refer to the exhibit. The user at Workstation B reports that Server A cannot be reached. What is preventing Workstation B from reaching Server A?
physical topology	This is the arrangement of the cables, network devices, and end systems. It describes how the network devices are actually interconnected with wires and cables.
3, 4, 2005	Which three statements are generally considered to be best practices in the placement of ACLs?
4	OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF?
Place standard ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.	Which statement are generally considered to be best practices in the placement of ACLs? (Choose three.)
1 & 4	Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0?
23	Telnet protocol by default uses Port ______.
Administrative distance	Which parameter can be tuned to affect the selection of a static route as a backup when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
None in the choices	Network infrastructure devices require IP addresses to enable remote management. Using the device IP address, the network administrator can remotely connect to the device using any of the following EXCEPT
ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.1 120	What is the correct syntax of a floating static route?
show ipnat translations	Which command will show you all the translations active on your router?
The correct answer is 'True'.	VLANis a switching technology that reduces the size of a broadcast domain.
ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.1 135	What is the correct syntax of a floating static route?
110	What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol?
Check your interfaces for the correct configuration.	Which of the following would be a good starting point for troubleshooting if your router is not translating?
To be used as a backup route	Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is highier than the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router?
2 & 3	Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB?
Trunks	This is used between a network device and server or other device that is equipped with an appropriate 802.1Q-capable NIC.
3 & 5	Which two characteristics are shared by both standard and extended ACLs?
RAM	This memory provides temporary storage for various applications and processes, including the running IOS, the running configuration file, IP routing table, Ethernet ARP table.
DHCP Snooping	This is a security technology that determines which devices attached to switch ports can respond to DHCP requests. This can be used to prevent unauthorized DHCP messages that contain information such as IP address related data being provided to legitimate network devices.
1 & 4	"What are two advantages of static routing over dynamic routing? 1. Static routing is more secure because it does not advertise over the network. 2. Static routing scales well with expanding networks. 3. Static routing requires very little knowledge of the network for correct implementation. 4. Static routing uses fewer router resources than dynamic routing 5. Static routing is relatively easy to configure for large networks."
Inbound ACLs are processed before the packets are routed while outbound ACLs are processed after the routing is completed.	Which statement describes a difference between the operation of inbound and outbound ACLs?
4 & 5	"Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.) 1. The metric varies depending which Layer 3 protocol is being routed, such as IP. 2. A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances. 3. The value of the administrative distance can not be altered by the network administrator. 4. Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path. 5. Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route. 6. The metric is always determined based on hop count."
ISL & IEEE 802.1q	Which are the 2 trunking protocols?
RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R2.	Refering to the network diagram above of RMS University. All hosts and router interfaces are configured correctly. Pings to the server from both H1 and H2 and pings between H1 and H2 are not successful. What is causing this problem?
Switchport access vlan	If the port is assigned to the wrong VLAN, what command to be command to change the VLAN membership on a particular port?
2, 3, 2006	Which three statements about routed ports on a multilayer switch are true?
Addresses are leased to host. A host will usually keep the same address by periodically contacting the DHCP sever to renew the lease.	How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP address to host?
Trunks	This is a point-to-point link between two network devices that carries more than one VLAN.
ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64	Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPV6 address to a router interface?
router ospf 1 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0	What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add network 10.1.1.0 /24 to area 0?
1 & 5	Refer to the exhibit below. Which two statements about the configuration of the switch interface are correct?
110	What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
None of the choices	The following are VLAN best practices EXCEPT?
1 & 4	"The primary functions of a router are the following? 1. Packet switching 2. Flow control 3. Domain name resolution 4. Path selection 5. Microsegmentation"
3 & 5	Refer to the diagram below. The network administrator of RMS Overseas and Employment Agency that has the IP address of 10.0.70.23/25 needs to have access to the corporate FTP server (10.0.54.5/28). The FTP server is also a web server that is accessible to all internal employees on networks within the 10.x.x.x address. No other traffic should be allowed to this server. Which extended ACL would be used to filter this traffic, and how would this ACL be applied?
speed auto	What is the command to configure the interface to automatically negotiate speed with the connected device?
1, 5, 2006	"To enable network access to a remote destination, what three pieces of information must be configured on a host? 1. default gateway 2. hostname 3. DNS server address 4. DHCP server address 5. IP address 6. subnet mask"
Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.	Which of the statements describe characteristic of load balancing?
1 & 4	"What are two functions of dynamic routing protocols? 1. to maintain routing tables 2. to assure low router overhead 3. to avoid exposing network information 4. to discover the network 5. to choose the path that is specified by the administrator"
Configure a static default route from R1 to Edge, a default route from Edge to the Internet, and a static route from Edge to R1.	Refer to the exhibit below. What routing solution will allow both PC A and PC B to access the Internet with the minimum amount of router CPU and network bandwidth utilization?
2, 4, 2005	Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking?
The hosts will continue to communicate normally for a period of time.	All hosts in the networks have been operational for several hours when the DHCP server goes down. What happens to the hosts that have obtained service from the DHCP server?
Show access-lists	Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists?
Network 10.12.0.0	Refer to the sample configuration below. Which (config-router) command will allow the network represented on the interface to be advertised by RIP?
debug ipnat	Which command will allow you to see real-time translations on your router?
name employee	Which of the following is the command to specify a VLAN name? Name of VLAN is employee.
It is a logical interface internal to the router.	What is a characteristic of an IPv4 loopback interface on a Cisco IOS router?
Ip default-gateway 172.10.90.1	Which of the following is the command to configure the switch default gateway with IP address of 172.10.90.1?
1, 5	Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration of the switch interface are correct?
PAT	Which version of NAT allows many hosts inside a private network to simultaneously use a single inside global address for connecting to the Internet?
2 & 3	Which two features are characteristics of flash memory? 1. Flash receives a copy of the IOS from RAM when a device is powered on. 2. Flash provides nonvolatile storage. 3. The contents of flash may be overwritten. 4. Flash is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers. 5. The contents of flash may be lost during a power cycle.
2 & 5	"Which two network parameters are used by EIGRP as metrics to select the best path to reach a network? 1. Jitter 2. bandwidth 3. resiliency 4. hop count 5. delay 6. confidentiality"
RIPv2	Which classless routing protocol supports VLSM and CIDR, supports manual route summarization, and uses the multicast address 224.0.0.9?
The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.	A network administrator in Stark Industries is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem? Router(config)# router ospf 1 Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0
Trunks	This is a conduit for multiple VLANs between switches and routers.
All traffic exiting E0 will be denied	The following access list below was applied outbound on the E0 interface connected to the 192.169.1.8/29 LAN:
Core layer	This layer provide fault isolation and high-speed backbone connectivity.
Default route	What type of route allows a router to forward packets even though its routing table contains no specific route to the destination network?
SSH	A protocol that provides an encrypted connection to a remote device.
10.1.3.3	"Refer to the exhibit. According to the routing table, where will the router send a packet destined for 10.1.5.65? Network Interface Next-hop 10.1.1.0/24 e0 directly connected 10.1.2.0/24 e1 directly connected 10.1.3.0/25 s0 directly connected 10.1.4.0/24 s1 directly connected 10.1.5.0/24 e0 10.1.1.2 10.1.5.64/28 e1 10.1.2.2 10.1.5.64/29 s0 10.1.3.3 10.1.5.64/27 s1 10.1.4.4"
Routers compare metrics to determine the best path.	Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?
logical topology	This is the path over which the data is transferred in a network. It describes how the network devices appear connected to network users.
Traffic will be dropped, because of the implicit deny all at the end of the ACL.	Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to HTTP traffic coming from the Internet that is destined for 172.12.12.10 if the traffic is processed by this ACL?
3 & 4	Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router?
vlan.dat	Configurations are stored within a VLAN database file, called
2 & 3	"Which two features are characteristics of flash memory? 1. The contents of flash may be lost during a power cycle. 2. Flash provides nonvolatile storage. 3. The contents of flash may be overwritten. 4. Flash is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers. 5. Flash receives a copy of the IOS from RAM when a device is powered on."
2 & 4	"Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? 1. RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence. 2. ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules. 3. NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence. 4. Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot. 5. ROM contains the most current and most complete version of the IOS. 6. Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOS"
The interface fa0/0 has not been activated.	A network administrator configures the interface fa0/0 on the router R1 with the command ip address 172.16.1.254 255.255.255.0. However, when the administrator issues the command show ip route, the routing table does not show the directly connected network. What is the possible cause of the problem?
Process, Fast, Cisco Express Forwarding	Routers support three packet-forwarding mechanisms. These are
1, 3, 2005	Which of the following 3 methods/types of NAT?
There is an activity and the port is sending or receiving data.	In the Switch port LED status, if the LED is blinking green what is the status of switch?
"router ospf 1 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0"	What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add network 10.1.1.0 /24 to area 0?
ip nat outside	Which command would you place on interface connected to the Internet?
When selecting the type of switch, rack units should always be considered. Rack units is the number ports available in the network switch.	Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?
A directly connected network	What route would have the lowest administrative distance?
2 & 4	"Which of the following are 2 primary functions of a router? 1. Packet switching 2. Microsegmentation 3. Domain name resolution 4. Path selection 5. Flow control"
Telnet DoS attack	In this attack, the attacker exploits a flaw in the Telnet server software running on the switch that renders the Telnet service unavailable. This sort of attack prevents an administrator from remotely accessing switch management functions. This can be combined with other direct attacks on the network as part of a coordinated attempt to prevent the network administrator from accessing core devices during the breach.
A switch populates the MAC address table based on destination MAC addresses.	Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?
4, 6	Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit?
Router#showipeigrp neighbors	A network administrator in XYZ Telecom is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?
Size of the network	Which factor directly affects the time to convergence?
2, 3, 2005	OSPF routing uses the concept of areas. What are the three characteristics of OSPF areas?
VLANs are based on logical connections, instead of physical connections.	Which of the following describes a VLAN?
Core layer	This layer is considered as the network backbone.
Console cable	This is used to connect a PC to the console port of a switch for configuration.
2 & 4	"Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? 1. VTP 2. 802.1q 3. IGP 4. ISL 5. 802.3u"
The correct answer is 'True'.	VLAN is a switching technology that reduces the size of a broadcast domain.
2, 4, 2006	Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem?
Broadcast domain	A collection of interconnected switches forms a _______________________.
22	SSH protocol by default uses Port ______.
Permit all packets matching the first three octets of the source address to all destinations	The following configuration line was added to router R1
There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30	Refer to the exhibit. A router-on-a-stick configuration was implemented for VLANs 15, 30, and 45, according to the show running-config command output. PCs on VLAN 45 that are using the 172.16.45.0 /24 network are having trouble connecting to PCs on VLAN 30 in the 172.16.30.0 /24 network. Which error is most likely causing this problem?
If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator must resolve the conflict.	Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?
Fixed configuration	The ________________ switches do not support features or options beyond those that originally came with the switch.
Daisy Chain	Stackable that are arranged one on top of the other with cables linking the switches in a _____________ connection.
10	What is the OSPF default frequency, in seconds, at which a Cisco router sends hello packets on a multiaccess network?
The correct answer is 'True'.	Router On Stick is a method used for communicating inter-vlan using a router.
Data VLAN	A type of VLAN that is configured to carry user-generated traffic.
Join native VLAN to VLAN.	The following are VLAN best practices EXCEPT?
Network Time Protocol	This is a protocol that is used to synchronize the clocks of computer systems over packet-switched, variable-latency data networks.
show ip interface brief	What is the command used to determine the status of both physical and virtual interfaces including IP address?
S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2	The network administrator of ABC Supermarket configures the router with the "ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2" command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0 ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10	Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer in RMSIndustries that is shown wants to use the primary ISP connection for all external connectivity. The backup ISP connection is used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish this goal.
The port is operating at 100 Mbps.	What is the status of the Port speed LED if the LED light is green?
Mode	If an error occurs while loading the operating system because of missing or damaged system files, the load loader can be access through a console connection. What button in the switch you need to press while reconnecting the power cord?
Dividing Layer 1,2 and 3 networks into multiple physical workgroups reduces unnecessary traffic on the network and boosts performance.	Which of the following is NOT a benefit of VLAN?
Dynamic Trunking Protocol is disable by default.	Which of the following describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol?
Cut-through switch method	A switch forwarding method that begins the forwarding process after the destination MAC address of an incoming frame and the egress port has been determined.
2, 3, 2006	A network associate in Genesis Aerospace Industries has configured OSPF with the command:
1, 2 and 4	Which of the following would be good reasons to run NAT?
Vlan 30	What is the command to create a VLAN with a valid VLAN ID number 30?
Fast convergence	What is an advantage of OSPF compared to RIP?
ip nat pool Todd 171.16.10.65 171.16.10.94 net 255.255.255.224	Which command will create a dynamic pool named Todd that will provide you with 30 global addresses?
the highest IP address among its active interfaces	If all OSPF routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?
They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.	Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?
There is activity and the port is sending or receiving data.	In the Switch port LED status, if the LED is blinking green what is the status of switch?
Distribution layer	This layer provides intelligent switching, routing, and network access policy functions to access the rest of the network.
Native VLAN	A type of VLAN that is defined in the IEEE 802.1Q specification to maintain backward compatibility with untagged traffic common to legacy LAN scenarios.
An additional broadcast domain will be created.	A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?
172.16.2.0 to 172.16.3.255	Which IPv4 address range covers all IP addresses that match the ACL filter specified by 172.16.2.0 with wildcard mask 0.0.1.255?
Network 10.10.1.0 is reachable.	Refer to the exhibit. What information can be gathered from the output?
ip nat inside	Which command would you place on interface on a private network?
between 1006 and 4094	The extended range of VLAN ID is
show ipnat statistics	Which command will show you the summary of the NAT configuration?
The route source was learned dynamically.	A network administrator has examined the routing table of a router and noted that the entry for the destination network 172.16.4.0/24 begins with the letter D. What does this letter signify?
ipnat outside	Which command would you place on interface connected to the Internet?
The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.	Refer to the exhibit. Which statement are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit?
3 & 5	What two functions describe uses of an access control list?
VLAN 1	The default VLAN for Cisco switches is ____________________.
A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2	Refer to the given network diagram. Which command would be used on router A to configure a static route to direct traffic from LAN A that is destined for LAN C?
1, 4, 2006	Which 3 series of commands will configure router R1 for LAN-to-LAN communication with router R2? The enterprise network address is 192.1.1.0/24 and the routing protocol in use is RIP.
1 & 5	What are two benefits of using NAT?
None of the choices	Which of the following describes a VLAN?
2, 4	Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link?
Cisco Discovery Protocol	This is a proprietary protocol that all Cisco devices can be configured to use. This checks other Cisco devices that are directly connected, which allows the devices to auto-configure their connection.
The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.	A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem?
Permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 25	Which IPv6 ACL command entry will permit traffic from any host to an SMTP server on network 2001:DB8:10:10::/64?
Modular configuration	The _____ switches typically come with different sized chassis that allow for the installation of different numbers of line card.
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0 ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10	Refer to the exhibit below. The network engineer for the company that is shown wants to use the primary ISP connection for all external connectivity. The backup ISP connection is used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish this goal?
2, 5	Which two parameters are used by EIGRP as metrics to select the best path to reach a network?
2 & 4	"Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets? 1. They are used to negotiate correct parameters among neighboring interfaces. 2. They are used to maintain neighbor relationships. 3. They are used to determine the complete network topology. 4. They are used for dynamic neighbor discovery. 5. They are used to flood link-state information to all neighbors."
DHCP spoofing attack	What type of DHCP attack where in an attacker configures a fake DHCP server on the network to issue DHCP addresses to clients. The normal reason for this attack is to force the clients to use false Domain Name System (DNS) or Windows Internet Naming Service (WINS) servers and to make the clients use the attacker, or a machine under the control of the attacker, as their default gateway.
You can configure one access list, per direction, per layer 3 protocol	Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?
Full duplex mode	Sometimes switch ports must manually have their duplex mode manually configured. This duplex mode increases effective bandwidth by allowing both ends of a connection to transmit and receive data simultaneously.
All of the choices	Which of the following describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol?
Administrative distance	Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
ipnat inside	Which command would you place on interface on a private network?
configure terminal	Global configuration mode is used to configure system globally, or to enter specific configuration modes to configure specific elements such as protocols. What is the command to enter global configuration mode?
show ip nat translations	Which command will show you all the translations active on your router?
3 & 6	When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never be assignable to hosts?
4 & 6	When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never be assignable to hosts?
2, 4, 2005	"Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking? 1. one physical interface for each subinterface 2. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface 3. a management domain for each subinterface 4. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags 5. one subinterface per VLAN 6. subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags"
two	The AJ company has a small network. The network consists of one switch and one router. The switch has been configured with two VLANs. The router has been configured as a router-on- a-stick to allow inter-VLAN routing. A trunk is configured to connect the switch to the router. Whatis the minimum number of router subinterfaces that are required for all the VLANs to communicate?
ROM	This memory stores router bootup instructions and basic diagnostic software.
1 & 3	The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following 2 tasks?
There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30.*	Refer to the exhibit. A router-on-a-stick configuration was implemented for VLANs 15, 30, and 45, according to the show running-config command output. PCs on VLAN 45 that are using the 172.16.45.0 /24 network are having trouble connecting to PCs on VLAN 30 in the 172.16.30.0 /24 network. Which error is most likely causing this problem?
The correct answer is 'False'.	"True of False. Ingress is used to describe frames leaving the device through a particular port."
show ip ospf database	Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
1 & 2	Which two statements about static NAT translations are true?
1 & 4	"The primary functions of a router are the following? 1. Packet switching 2. Flow control 3. Domain name resolution 4. Path selection 5. Microsegmentation"
2 & 3	"Which two features are characteristics of flash memory? 1. Flash receives a copy of the IOS from RAM when a device is powered on. 2. Flash provides nonvolatile storage. 3. The contents of flash may be overwritten. 4. Flash is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers. 5. The contents of flash may be lost during a power cycle."
4 & 5	Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.) 1. The metric varies depending which Layer 3 protocol is being routed, such as IP. 2. A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances. 3. The value of the administrative distance can not be altered by the network administrator. 4. Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path. 5. Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route. 6. The metric is always determined based on hop count.
Double Tagging Attack	This type of attack takes advantage of the way that hardware on most switches operates. Most switches perform only one level of 802.1Q de- encapsulation, which allows an attacker to embed a hidden 802.1Q tag inside the frame.
show ip nat statistics	Which command will show you the summary of the NAT configuration?
ip access-group 101 in	As a network administrator of RMS Aerospace Industries, you have been instructed to prevent all traffic originating on the LAN from entering the R2 router. Which the following command would implement the access list on the interface of the R2 router?
1, 3, 2005	Which three features are of OSPF routing protocol?
2 & 4	"Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? 1. VTP 2. 802.1q 3. IGP 4. ISL 5. 802.3u"
DHCP starvation attack	What type of DHCP attack where in an attacker floods the DHCP server with DHCP requests to use all the available IP addresses that the DHCP server can issue. After these IP addresses are issued, the server cannot issue any more addresses, and this situation produces a denial-of-service (DoS) attackas new clients cannot obtain network access.
4	What is the default number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing of a Cisco OSPF router?
EIGRP	Which classless routing protocol supports VLSM and CIDR, bounded and triggered updates, and uses the multicast address of 224.0.0.10?
Routers support a variety of interface types. Switches typically support Ethernet interfaces.	What is one feature that distinguishes routers from Layer 2 switches?
3 & 5	Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator that has the IP address of 10.0.70.23/25 needs to have access to the corporate FTP server (10.0.54.5/28). The FTP server is also a web server that is accessible to all internal employees on networks within the 10.x.x.x address. No other traffic should be allowed to this server. Which extended ACL would be used to filter this traffic, and how would this ACL be applied?
to provide an IP configuration information to hosts	What is the purpose of the DHCP server?
802.1q & ISL	Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link?
To be used as a backup route	Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is higher than the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router?
1, 4	There are two advantages of static routing over dynamic routing among these choices. What are these?
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0 ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10	Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer for the company that is shown wants to use the primary ISP connection for all external connectivity. The backup ISP connection is used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish this goal.
2 & 5	"Which two network parameters are used by EIGRP as metrics to select the best path to reach a network? 1. Jitter 2. bandwidth 3. resiliency 4. hop count 5. delay 6. confidentiality"
All of the Choices	VLAN IDs 1002 through 1005 are reserved for
show vlan	In troubleshooting VLANs, what command should be used to check whether the port belongs to the expected VLAN?
1, 3, 2005	Which of the following are 3 disadvantages of using NAT?
VLAN tagging	This is the practice of inserting a VLAN ID into a packet header in order to identify which VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) the packet belongs to.
Remote	The following are switch port modes that DTP offers EXCEPT
Static route	If your routing table has a static, a RIP, and an OSPF route to the same network, which route will be used to route packets by default?
All of the choices	Which of the following is an element of converged network?
The route source was learned dynamically.	A network administrator of Stark Industries has examined the routing table of a router and noted that the entry for the destination network 172.16.4.0/24 begins with the letter D. What does this letter signify?
2, 4, 2005	"Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking? 1. one physical interface for each subinterface 2. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface 3. a management domain for each subinterface 4. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags 5. one subinterface per VLAN 6. subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags"
The Static route is removed from the routing table.	What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface associated with that route goes into a down state?
show ipospf database	Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
Access layer	The primary function of this layer is to provide network access to the user.
Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.	A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four vlans in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
Brute force password attack	This attack tries to crack a password on another device. The first phase of this attack starts with the attacker using a list of common passwords and a program designed to try to establish a Telnet session using each word on the dictionary list.
RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R2.	Refer to the exhibit. All hosts and router interfaces are configured correctly. Pings to the server from both H1 and H2 and pings between H1 and H2 are not successful. What is causing this problem?
1 & 4	Which 2 commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0?
802.1q	Which protocols are used to configure trunking on a switch?
Do not use the dynamic auto or dynamic desirable.	What is the best practice relative to switch port modes?
8	If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic, how many ACLs could be created and applied to it?
access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255	Which item represents the standard IP ACL?
Native VLAN	Which is the VLAN not tagged by 802.1q?
Bandwidth	Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
ip access-group 101 in	As a network administrator, you have been instructed to prevent all traffic originating on the LAN from entering the R2 router. Which the following command would implement the access list on the interface of the R2 router?
2.2.2.2	Refer to the exhibit. If the router Cisco returns the given output and has not had its router ID set manually, what value will OSPF use as its router ID?
1 & 2	A network administrator needs to configure a standard ACL so that only the workstation of the administrator with the IP address 192.168.15.23 can access the virtual terminal of the main router. Which two configuration commands can achieve the task?
The port is operating at 1000 Mbps.	What is the status of the Port speed LED if the LED light is blinking green?
Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.	Which statement describe a characteristicof load balancing?
a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source .	What does administrative distance refer to?
Core layer	This layer provide fault isolation and high-speed backbone onnectivity.
192.168.0.1	R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF. From the following list of IP addresses configured on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID?
1, 3, 2005	Which 3 statements describe the routing protocol OSPF?
If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused until the server is rebooted.	Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?
The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.	Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?
2 & 5	Which two network parameters are used by EIGRP as metrics to select the best path to reach a network? 1. Jitter 2. bandwidth 3. resiliency 4. hop count 5. delay 6. confidentiality
1 & 4	The primary functions of a router are the following? 1. Packet switching 2. Flow control 3. Domain name resolution 4. Path selection 5. Microsegmentation
192.168.0.1	From the following list of IP addresses configured on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID?
Configure a static default route from R1 to Edge, a default route from Edge to the Internet, and a static route from Edge to R1	Refer to the exhibit. What routing solution will allow both PC A and PC B to access the Internet with the minimum amount of router CPU and network bandwidth utilization?
A. R1(config)# interface ethernet 0 R1(config-if)# ip address 192.1.1.129 255.255.255.192 R1(config-if)# no shutdown	Which series of commands will configure router R1 for LAN-to-LAN communication with router R2? The enterprise network address is 192.1.1.0/24 and the routing protocol in use is RIP. (Choose three.)
4	OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in therouting table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF ?
Which reason for the problem is most likely true?	Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the give configurations to R1 and R2 you notice that OSPFv3 fails to start.
Speak	Which of the following HSRP router states does an active router enter when it is preempted by a higher priority router?
ACL blocking port 80	Host is able to ping a web server but it is not able to do HTTP request.
The option wherein there’s the encapsulation dot1q and switchport mode trunk	Refer to the exhibit. What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)
Global addresses start with 2000::/3.	Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)
When properly configured, VTP minimizes VLAN misconfigurations and configuration inconsistencies.	Which three statements about VTP features are true? (Choose three.)
The port is not associated with any VLAN	Which two statements describe a routed switch port on a multilayer switch? (Choose two)
IS-IS	Which routing protocol was designed by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO)?
EIGRP	Which routing protocol uses both bandwidth and delay to determine the best pathway to reach a remote network?
1. during the initial startup of the routing protocol process 2. when a neighbor adjacency changes	What are two situations where an OSPF router would send out a link-state packet (LSP)? (Choose two.)
EIGRP	Which routing protocol uses the DUAL algorithm and sends multicast messages to propagate routing updates?
EIGRP stores all routes learned from neighbors in a topology table.	Which operation feature is different between EIGRP and RIP?
EIGRP	Which interior routing protocol uses protocol-dependent modules (PDMs)?
1. They require a lot of hardware resources. 2. They compute their own knowledge of the network topology.	What are two characteristics of link-state protocols compared to distance vector protocols? (Choose two.)
1. They are used to maintain neighbor relationships. 2. They are used for dynamic neighbor discovery.	Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets? (Choose two.)
Dijkstra's algorithm	Which algorithm is used by the OSPF routing process to construct the SPF tree on a router?
EIGRP	Which routing protocol uses the Diffusing Update Algorithm to install routes into the routing table?
split horizon	What loop prevention technique is implemented by distance vector routing protocols?
1. OSPF 2. IS-IS	Which two routing protocols are classified as link-state protocols? (Choose two.)
Implement multiple areas of OSPF.	How can a network administrator reduce SPF overhead on OSPF routers?
switchport	The _____________ parameter can be added to the show interfaces interface_id command to display the administrative and operational switch interface mode.​
Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 0/1 Switch(config-if)# no switchport	A network administrator enters the following command sequence on a Cisco 3560 switch. What is the purpose of these commands?
trunk port	Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured router CiscoVille with the above commands to provide inter-VLAN routing. What type of port will be required on a switch that is connected to Gi0/0 on router CiscoVille to allow inter-VLAN routing?
VLAN ID Network Subnet mask Subinterface Default Gateway 10 172.17.10.0 255.255.255.0 Fa 0/0.10 172.17.10.1 20 172.17.20.0 255.255.255.0 Fa 0/0.20 172.17.20.1 30 172.17.30.0 255.255.255.0 Fa 0/0.30 172.17.30.1 Which two errors can be identified from the show running-config command output from the router? (Choose two.)	Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is troubleshooting a router-on-a-stick network that should have the following requirements:
Access1(config)# vtp mode client Access1(config)# vtp domain MYCORP Access1(config)# vtp version 2 Access1(config)# vtp password ITrustYou	Refer to the exhibit. Access1 is a new switch that is to be connected as a VTP client to the network once it has been configured. Given the output generated by the VTP server switch Dist-2, which series of configuration commands would successfully introduce the client switch into the VTP domain?
option 4	Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly describes the function of a switch that is configured in VTP transparent mode?
Switches from other vendors do not support DTP.	An administrator is investigating a failure on a trunk link between a Cisco switch and a switch from another vendor. After a few show commands, the administrator notices that the the switches are not negotiating a trunk. What is a probable cause for this issue?
Switch SW2 has a higher VTP revision number, which causes deletion of the VLAN information in the VTP domain.	Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and later inserted into the production network. Before the trunk link was connected between SW1 and SW2, the network administrator issued the show vtp status command as displayed in the exhibit. Immediately after the switches were interconnected, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be a possible reason for the problem?
An SVI is needed for each VLAN.	Which sentence correctly describes the SVI inter-VLAN routing method?
extended	Which type of VLAN is identified by a VLAN ID between 1006 and 4094 and not contained in updates of switches participating in a VTP domain?
IP addresses on the subinterfaces are incorrectly matched to the VLANs	Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring RT1 for inter-VLAN routing. The switch is configured correctly and is functional. Host1, Host2, and Host3 cannot communicate with each other. Based on the router configuration, what is causing the problem?
dynamic auto - dynamic auto	Which combination of DTP modes set on adjacent switches will cause the link to become an access link instead of a trunk link?
routing traffic internally to a Layer 3 switch device	Which scalable method must be implemented in order to provide inter-VLAN routing on a switched network with more than 1000 VLANs?
It provides centralized management of VLANs in a multi-switch environment.	What is the purpose of VTP?
router-on-a-stick	A PC is to access a web server on another network. Which inter-VLAN method will provide the highest bandwidth at Layer 3 and also provide a default gateway for the PC?
1. Configuring the EtherChannel interface provides consistency in the configuration of the physical links. 2. Spanning Tree Protocol views the physical links in an EtherChannel as one logical connection.	What are two advantages of EtherChannel? (Choose two.)
1. speed 2. VLAN Information	Which two parameters must match on the ports of two switches to create a PAgP EtherChannel between the switches? (Choose two.)
GLBP allows load balancing between routers.	A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement is a feature that is associated with GLBP?
1. source IP to destination IP 2. source MAC to destination MAC	What are two load-balancing methods in the EtherChannel technology? (Choose two.)
on	When EtherChannel is configured, which mode will force an interface into a port channel without exchanging aggregation protocol packets?
port channel	When EtherChannel is implemented, multiple physical interfaces are bundled into which type of logical connection?
It supports IPv6 and IPv4 addressing.	A network administrator is analyzing first-hop router redundancy protocols. What is a characteristic of VRRPv3?
passive	When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure LACP on a port only if the port receives LACP packets from another device?
channel-group 2 mode auto	Which command will start the process to bundle two physical interfaces to create an EtherChannel group via LACP?
EtherChannel	Refer to the exhibit. Which switching technology would allow data to be transmitted over each access layer switch link and prevent the port from being blocked by spanning tree due to the redundant link?
PAgP	Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is reviewing the configuration of switch S1. Which protocol has been implemented to group multiple physical ports into one logical link?
grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches	As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?
HSRP uses active and standby routers.	A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement describes a feature that is associated with HSRP?
1. desirable 2. auto	Which two channel group modes would place an interface in a negotiating state using PAgP? (Choose two.)
The remaining two interfaces continue to load balance traffic.	A network administrator configured an EtherChannel link with three interfaces between two switches. What is the result if one of the three interfaces is down?
SW1: on SW2: on	Which mode configuration setting would allow formation of an EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 without sending negotiation traffic?
It requires a terminal emulation client.	What is a characteristic of out-of-band device management?
network edge routers	Which type of router would an enterprise use to allow customers to access content anytime and anyplace, regardless of whether they are at home or work?
Port Density	Fill in the blank. The number of ports available on a single switch is referred to as _____________
48 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each port	How much traffic is a 48-port gigabit switch capable of switching when operating at full wire speed?
implementing wireless connectivity	Which network design solution will best extend access layer connectivity to host devices?
1. Core Layer: provides a high-speed backbone link between dispersed networks 2. Distribution Layer: forwards traffic from one local network to another 3. Access Layer: provides connectivity for users	Match the design model layer to the appropriate network function. (Not all options are used.)
broadcast	Fill in the blank. Among the beneficial functions of a router are enhanced network security and containment of ________ traffic
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)	Which technology is required when switched networks are designed to include redundant links?
1. installing duplicate equipment to provide failover services 2. using redundant connections to provide alternate physical paths	Which two methods help to prevent the disruption of network services? (Choose two.)
function of PoE pass-through?	What is the function of PoE pass-through?
1. console 2. AUX	Which two types of connections can be used for out-of-band configuration for a Cisco IOS network device? (Choose two.)
EtherChannel	Which feature could be used in a network design to increase the bandwidth by combining multiple physical links into a single logical link?
176	A company has deployed four 48-port access layer switches to a switch block. For redundancy each access layer switch will connect to two distribution layer switches. Additionally, link aggregation will be used to combine 10 Gbps interfaces to form 20 Gbps trunk links from the access layer switches to the distribution layer switches. How many switch ports on the access layer switches will be available in the switch block to support end devices?
Failure domain	What is the term that is used for the area of a network that is affected when a device or network service experiences problems?

#SarcasticGamer #SarcasticReview

---

What do you think of this blog? Write down at the COMMENT section below.